(1) If he knew what he was doing, he would be doing it better. (2) If he knew what Sue is/was doing, he would go to see her. (3) If he bought the car he has long wanted to have, he would be so excited.
The verb in a subordinate clause within an if-clause with a subjunctive-past verb --- I've been thinking what causes it to be its past subjunctive.
I was told the sentences above are idiomatic English in terms of the usage of the bold lettered verbs. How come you use the past subjunctive [eg. was in (1) and (2)] for some sentences whereas the indicative [eg. is in (2) and has in (3)] for the others when they all express the present tense? I was even told is in (2) is Americanism. Is it something of American regional usage?
Many thanks,
Hiro
Top answer
While we wait for native speakers' comments, here's what I think. HSS (1) If he knew what he was doing, he would be doing it better. Wrong.
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While we wait for native speakers' comments, here's what I think.
HSS(1) If he knew what he was doing, he would be doing it better.
Wrong. I would say, if the reference is to the present time: If he knew what he is doing, he would be doing it better. If the reference is to the past: If he had known