Hi,Would you be kind to let me ask the futher question? And could you tell me the understanding correct or not?1. We know [What is in the mind.] = [What the heart thinks.] , so, [what] is done by the mind or the heart; and [the mind] or [the heart] is the doer. So, in {What is in the mind. }, [What] as the property of [the mind] / [the heart]. So the meaning of [belongs to] must be with the [is]. 2. In [The book is to be read by every student.], the [is] used to the speaker to show [the book] like the property of [the book to be read by every student]. Because the speaker not makes [the book] typically have the quality to be read by every student. And just assign [the book] to a group given by the speaker. So, the [is] = belongs to a group of [the book to be read by every student] ?In {These people are all pathetic in a way, but the fat lady is most to be pitied.}, the speaker has the fat lady like the property of [the person to be pitied]. So, the [is] = belongs to a group of [the person to be pitied]?In {The play is to be held nest week.}, the [schedule] has [the play] belong to the play to be held nest week. Thank you for your assistance.
Top answer
Hello; No, be does not mean belong to . For example: The book is John's, not hers. The "ownership" is indicated by the use of the possessive case, not by the verb, is .
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Hi Alphecca Stars,Like see you again after many a day.If you don't mind. I want to say the [adverbial] shows the directions of the two ways;one is [in the direction of ], another is [under the direction of].A is in the direction of B-------A goes with / attends on B.A is under the direction of B.------A is controled or managed by B. In all those, the [adverbial] is still the [adverbial] in itse