0I want to ask 2 questions about pronunciation first:02br 02br 001) Do Americans say /use-01b00d02b00/ or /use-01b00t02b00/ in used to?02br 02br 002) I saw Ann Cook wrote this in American Accent course:02br 02br 00If the first consonant is voiced, the next one will be as well. If the first one is unvoiced, the second one will sound unvoiced, no matter what you do.02br 02br 00 Then she gave out examples:02br 02br 00After a voiced sound: He had to do it /he hae (d) d' du(w)'t/02br 02br 00After an unvoiced sound: he got to do it / he ga(t)d' du(w)'t/02br 02br 00a)(note that the words in bracket 01b00(d) (t) (w)02b00 are small and stand upper to others, I wonder whether we pronounced them)02br 02br 00b) How do those examples support the cause she gave, but I've seen no reason why. After t( unvoiced), we still pronounce: 'd, and so does after (d), so what's the difference?02br 02br 003)What is the difference between 01b00rate02b00 and 01b00incidence02b00?02br 02br 004) "Lifting bar bell helps your pectorals expand" or ""Lifting bar bell01b00s02b00 helps your pectorals expand"0-
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0 1. 02br 02br 002. In normal speech, she may be correct.
— Philip
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0 1. Americans usually say 'use-t'; for that reason, many write it 'use to' instead of the proper "used to".02br 02br 002. In normal speech, she may be correct. Her examples, however, as you've indicated, don't prove her point. (The raised letters indicate that they barely sound.)02br 02br 003. Very much interchangeable.02br 02br 004