Re: It has been hurt ever since then.

Question

Hi There,Got a grammar question that I found online and it is causing me a headache:Q) Yesterday, we were playing basketball when I fell on my knee. It _____ ever since then.    a) had hurt    b) has hurt    c) had been hurt    d) has been hurtI know the answer is (b) as it's good use of the present perfect. I aslo know that (d) is wrong, but I can't explain why it's wrong.I think that 'It has been injured' works as an answer, so why not 'It has been hurt'? Any ideas?Your help is greatly appreciated,DKUK

AlpheccaStars · Accepted Answer

Yesterday, we were playing basketball when I fell on my knee. It has hurt ever since then.

Hurt means to ache, to feel bad, to be sore. (used without an object)

Hurt can also mean "be injured." (used with an object)

I hurt my knee when I fell on a rock.
The passive voice is:

My knee has been hurt by my falling on a rock. (it happened at one instant in time.)

The reason why (d) is wrong is the time phrase "ever since then". The injury only happened once. The act of being injured cannot happen continuously, but the pain and aching can be continuous. Therefore, the passive construction with "hurt" cannot be used.

Anonymous · Answer

Thanks for your prompt answer AlpheccaStars.

I asked my fellow colleagues and got different answers, but yours seems to make the most sense in my mind. My mind is at peace now ;o)

Thanks

DKUK

Re: It has been hurt ever since then.

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