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Grammarian-bot Posted 20 years ago
Grammar

"to have" and Subject form of pronoun.

Does the verb to have takes subject form of pronoun after it in any exceptional case. I read the following sentence somewhere. I have never seen any such construction ever but still I am curious about it.

It must have been she at the door.

GB
  

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16 Answers
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Hi,

It must have been she at the door.
You'll rarely, quite probably never, hear anyone say this.

Best wishes, Clive
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Hi Marius,

My opinion was that you'd seldom 'hear anyone say this'.

Do you know the publication date of Jerome's short story?

Best wishes, Clive
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Hello, Clive:

The Street of the Blank Wall
Dodd, Mead & Co.
1916
http://www.jeromekjerome.com/works.htm
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Clive
Hi Marius,

My opinion was that you'd seldom 'hear anyone say this'.

Do you know the publication date of Jerome's short story?

Best wishes, Clive

I agree with Clive. According to traditional grammar, 'It is she." But in modern English, it should 'It is her."

Marius wrote: It
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Hi Marius,

The Street of the Blank Wall
Dodd, Mead & Co.
1916
http://www.jeromekjerome.com/works.htm
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Hi Marius

I agree with Clive. As I said earlier "It is I" is the traditional way. In modern English, "It's me" is correct.
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Well can someone will explain why should we use subjunctive mood here. Although must show strong believe and intention but i've barely read or heard anyone using subjunctive with "must".
Please explain
GB