Hi, all. I need a help from native speakers of English. Please compare the following 2 sets of sentences and tell me the difference between the sentences in each set. 1a. I have a cold. 1b. I'm having a cold. 2a. I've had a cold for 3 days. 2b. I've been having a cold for 3 days.
In my understanding, (1) basically the two sentences mean the same, but 1b/2b shows more clearly that the condition is temporary, as in "I'm having(=holding) a book now."/"I have been living Tokyo for 2 years." (2) 1b can be also used meaning "I'm catching/getting a cold" in some situation, which I feel less proper/common. (I prefer to use "catching/getting".) I also feel that it becomes even less proper/common to use 2b in the meaning of "I've been getting a cold for 3 days."
Is my understanding wrong or correct, especially on the second meaning? Thank you.
Top answer
We don't use the second of each pair at all. We reword them like this: I'm having one of [my/those] colds (again). ) I've been [sick with / fighting / suffering from / nursing] a cold for three days.
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We don't use the second of each pair at all. We reword them like this:
I'm having one of [my/those] colds (again). (This is used to mean that you are experiencing the recurrence of something that happens to you repetitively.)
I've been [sick with / fighting / suffering from / nursing] a cold for three days.
For 1a and 1b we use 'I've got a cold'. (I understand that the 'have got' construction, although extremely common in British English, is considered ungrammatical elsewhere?).
2a. I've had a cold for 3 days. This sounds fine for British English. 2b. I've been having a cold for 3 days. This is not used.