Problems with participle

Question

HelloI want to learn the real English so I ask here. I have something about Participle that I'd like to make myself clear.I know that there are three types of Participle - Present, Past, and Perfect. While for each type of participle there are "Active" and "Passive" form.It can be summarized as a small table like this.                      Present              Past              PerfectActive               doing                  -                  having donePassive             being done        done              having been doneThis is also the table for most English grammar books.However, I doubt the passive form of present participle "being done" has a difference with the passive form of past participle "done" (as it looks different). Am I correct?I know there are only one exception to the case, it is when I need to use verb-to-be as the active action of a verb, then "being done" will be useful.e.g. Since I was late for school, I was punished by my teacher.==&gt; "Being late for school, I was punished by my teacher.",In fact, can I shorten it to "Late for school, I was punished by my teacher"??? ( I don't think so but I am not sure.)For the perfect case, "having done" and "having been done", they are only used when we want to emphasize the time difference, am I correct?The last question - For the conditional sentence, from Type O to Type III, can I change it to become participle? I know that it is possible for type I, e.g.If you cheat in the exam, you will be disqualified.=&gt; "cheating in the exam, you will be disqualified."How about other type like Type II and Type III? Can I change them to participle? For example,If I were you, I would quit the job."=&gt; "Being you, I would quite the job." is it ok? (but I think it is very strange!)or If you gained enough money, you would be able to buy a new TV=&gt; "Not gaining enough money, you are not able to buy a new TV" it is ok? (or any other ok?)or If you had studied harder for the exam, you would not have failed.=&gt; Not having studied harder for the exam, you failed.Please clarify to me for anything I am wrong or not clear, because I need the accurate grammar to teach some people. Thanks you!!!!

Fandorin · Accepted Answer

kenny1999However, I doubt the passive form of present participle "being done" has a difference with the passive form of past participle "done" (as it looks different). Am I correct?

No.

kenny1999e.g. Since I was late for school, I was punished by my teacher.
==> "Being late for school, I was punished by my teacher.",
In fact, can I shorten it to "Late for school, I was punished by my teacher"??? ( I don't think so but I am not sure.)

You can, but it is considered a bad grammar. In informal talk you can do that but you should pay attention. It doesn't work all the time, though.

kenny1999For the perfect case, "having done" and "having been done", they are only used when we want to emphasize the time difference, am I correct?

No, you're not. They are different because one is passive and another is active. Notice the difference:

Having finished his article, Jonathan stretched his legs and called for a room service.
There has been a lot of damage having been done to Tokio.

Present Perfect Passive Participle (having been done) is not used extensively, though.

kenny1999If you cheat in the exam, you will be disqualified.
=> "cheating in the exam, you will be disqualified."

It is not grammatically correct and is not quite polite. It resembles a manner of speech like: "Do that - and you are dog meat".

kenny1999If I were you, I would quit the job."
=> "Being you, I would quite the job." is it ok? (but I think it is very strange!)

Absolutely unacceptable. "If I were you" is hypothetical, unreal situation and "being you" means "I am you" which is incorrect.

kenny1999If you gained enough money, you would be able to buy a new TV
=> "Not gaining enough money, you are not able to buy a new TV" it is ok? (or any other ok?)

Not even close. Again, you're mixing second conditional(unreal situation in present) with participle clause.

kenny1999If you had studied harder for the exam, you would not have failed.
=> Not having studied harder for the exam, you failed.

No. It is a third conditional, which is hypothetical situation connected with the past.

This might be of help to you.

http://www.slideshare.net/sevans59/participle-clauses

http://www.bbc.co.uk/worldservice/learningenglish/grammar/learnit/learnitv305.shtml

Kenny1999 · Answer

Thank you

but I think that for conditional type O or type I, the participle can be used.

As I said "If you cheat in the exam, you will be punished" (Type I)

and I think it is possible to change it to (while you said not grammatically correct)

"Cheating in the exam, you will be punished"

(This is an example from a textbook, but I don't know which part you think is grammatically incorrect)

I am not sure if participle can be used to replace type O

"If water boils to 100oC, it becomes steam."

=> "Boiling to 100oC, water becomes steam"

==

Another thing:

I encounter an example (also from a grammar book), that...

"As he is unwilling to meet new people, he doesn't attend the party."

=> "Unwilling to meet new people, he doesn't attend the party".

I think it is bizarre to say "Being unwilling to meet new people....."

However, this is similar to my previous example - "Being late for school , he was punished by his teacher", but you emphasized that "Late for school, he was punished by the teacher" is wrong

Problems with participle

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