Present perfect and subjunctive mood.

Sentence: The Chinese government has/had no role in Chinese GDP growth and the bull run, which started with its rule, was a result of excess liquidity.

Question: I am not being able to decide the right verb for this sentence. I originally decided to use the slash between has and had, but later felt "has had" would be more correct there. I am seriously very confused about the right choice there. The more I read the grammar books in the Google Books for the "has had" rule, the more I became confused about it as everyone has explained it differently. So please help me here.

Can I go with "has had" there? Or putting a slash between them would a better choice as it probably will reflect both the subjunctive moods (past and present) more clearly?

Thanks