CWLee Posted 15 years ago
Grammar
Passive of causatives 'have, make, let'
Hi teachers,
They say that the 'causative' verbs such as make, have, let which take bare infinives as their complement guarantee the success of the infinitival events.
My questions are 1) is the explanation above really true from the point of view of the native speakers?
2) if it's true, when these constructions are changed to passives, do these passive construction still gurantee the occurrence of the infinitival event?
For example,
Mary made/had/let John mow the lawn. (Q1. This sentence implies John surely mowed the lawn, doesn't it?)
Mary made/had/let John mow the lawn but he didn't. (Q2. This sentence fail to be grammatical, doesn't it?)
Then,
John was made to mow the lawn (by Mary). (Q3. Does this sentence imply that John did mowing the lawn for sure?)
John was made to mown the lawn (by Mary), but he didn't. (Q4. Is it possible to say like this?)
Additionally,
John was had to mow the lawn.
John was let to mow the lawn. (Q5. Are these sentences possible to use?)
Thank you in advance.
They say that the 'causative' verbs such as make, have, let which take bare infinives as their complement guarantee the success of the infinitival events.
My questions are 1) is the explanation above really true from the point of view of the native speakers?
2) if it's true, when these constructions are changed to passives, do these passive construction still gurantee the occurrence of the infinitival event?
For example,
Mary made/had/let John mow the lawn. (Q1. This sentence implies John surely mowed the lawn, doesn't it?)
Mary made/had/let John mow the lawn but he didn't. (Q2. This sentence fail to be grammatical, doesn't it?)
Then,
John was made to mow the lawn (by Mary). (Q3. Does this sentence imply that John did mowing the lawn for sure?)
John was made to mown the lawn (by Mary), but he didn't. (Q4. Is it possible to say like this?)
Additionally,
John was had to mow the lawn.
John was let to mow the lawn. (Q5. Are these sentences possible to use?)
Thank you in advance.
Top answer
They say that the 'causative' verbs such as make, have, let which take bare infinives as their complement guarantee the success of the infinitival events. My questions are 1) is the explanation above really true from the point of view of the native speakers? -- Yes, at least by implication and barring acts of ***.
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They say that the 'causative' verbs such as make, have, let which take bare infinives as their complement guarantee the success of the infinitival events. My questions are
1) is the explanation above really true from the point of view of the native speakers? -- Yes, at least by implication and barring acts of ***.
2) if it's true, when these constructions are chang
1) is the explanation above really true from the point of view of the native speakers? -- Yes, at least by implication and barring acts of ***.
2) if it's true, when these constructions are chang
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Thank you Mr. Micawber!
I want to make sure whether I undertand your words correctly?
In my understanding, you mean that native speakers of English seldom say in passives with causative verbs listed above.
Only 'make' is possible, and its 'success' meaning still holds true in the passive.
Am I right?
I want to make sure whether I undertand your words correctly?
In my understanding, you mean that native speakers of English seldom say in passives with causative verbs listed above.
Only 'make' is possible, and its 'success' meaning still holds true in the passive.
Am I right?
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