Anewcomer Posted 18 years ago
Grammar
modal verb + to
0 Hi Teachers 02 br
02 br
00 Is it possible for modal verbs (shall,should, will, would, may, might) to be followed by "to" ? 02 br
02 br
00 E.g: Mr. Bahnken also said the death penalty 01 b 00 should 02 b 00 01 b 00 to 02 b 00 01 b 00 be 02 b 00 pursued for those found guilty of killing his brother 02 br
02 br
00 A portion of the proceeds from the sale of its paper and timber assets 01 b 00 would 02 b 00 01 b 00 to 02 b 00 01 b 00 be 02 b 00 used to return equity to shareholders 02 br
02 br
00 Shouldn't it be ( should be, would be), is it even common for native speaker? If yes what is the difference between "be" alone and "to be" in this context 02 br
02 br
00 And in the case of "have, has,is" Is this even correct? " you don't 01 b 00 have 02 b 00 01 b 00 be 02 b 00 intimidated by the two-gigabyte jargon" "What WOW has done better than other games 01 b 00 is 02 b 00 01 b 00 be 02 b 00 able to appeal to both audience" 02 br
02 br
00 Shouldn't it be "have to be" and "is to be" or"being"? what is the difference? 02 br
02 br
00 Thanks a lot 0-
02 br
00 Is it possible for modal verbs (shall,should, will, would, may, might) to be followed by "to" ? 02 br
02 br
00 E.g: Mr. Bahnken also said the death penalty 01 b 00 should 02 b 00 01 b 00 to 02 b 00 01 b 00 be 02 b 00 pursued for those found guilty of killing his brother 02 br
02 br
00 A portion of the proceeds from the sale of its paper and timber assets 01 b 00 would 02 b 00 01 b 00 to 02 b 00 01 b 00 be 02 b 00 used to return equity to shareholders 02 br
02 br
00 Shouldn't it be ( should be, would be), is it even common for native speaker? If yes what is the difference between "be" alone and "to be" in this context 02 br
02 br
00 And in the case of "have, has,is" Is this even correct? " you don't 01 b 00 have 02 b 00 01 b 00 be 02 b 00 intimidated by the two-gigabyte jargon" "What WOW has done better than other games 01 b 00 is 02 b 00 01 b 00 be 02 b 00 able to appeal to both audience" 02 br
02 br
00 Shouldn't it be "have to be" and "is to be" or"being"? what is the difference? 02 br
02 br
00 Thanks a lot 0-
Top answer
02 br 00 Is it possible for modal verbs (shall,should, will, would, may, might) to be followed by "to"? -- 01 i 00 01 b 00 No. They all take bare infinitives (no 'to') 02 b 02 i 02 br 02 br 00 Shouldn't it be "have to be" and "is to be" -- 01 b 01 i 00 Yes.
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0 . 02 br
00 Is it possible for modal verbs (shall,should, will, would, may, might) to be followed by "to"? -- 01 i 00 01 b 00 No. They all take bare infinitives (no 'to') 02 b 02 i 02 br
02 br
00 Shouldn't it be "have to be" and "is to be" -- 01 b 01 i 00 Yes. Those are your only choices. 02 i 02 b 0-
00 Is it possible for modal verbs (shall,should, will, would, may, might) to be followed by "to"? -- 01 i 00 01 b 00 No. They all take bare infinitives (no 'to') 02 b 02 i 02 br
02 br
00 Shouldn't it be "have to be" and "is to be" -- 01 b 01 i 00 Yes. Those are your only choices. 02 i 02 b 0-
00
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0 These are misprints that were not caught by the editors. 02 br
00 Here's how is can happen. The writer reports 02 br
01 i 00 Mr. Smith says the matter has to be pursued in the courts. 02 i 02 br
02 br
00 Then he changes his mind. He decides to say 01 i 00 should be 02 i 00 instead of 01 i 00 has to be 02 i 00 , so
00 Here's how is can happen. The writer reports 02 br
01 i 00 Mr. Smith says the matter has to be pursued in the courts. 02 i 02 br
02 br
00 Then he changes his mind. He decides to say 01 i 00 should be 02 i 00 instead of 01 i 00 has to be 02 i 00 , so
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