IanKCH Posted 16 years ago
Grammar
Is the tense used in the first part of a sentenceapplicable to the subsequent parts?
Hi,
I would like to ask if the tense used in the first part of a sentence is applicable to the subsequent parts.
Which of the below sentences is the same as writing "I have eaten a bowl of porridge and have drunk a cup of milk"?
1. "I have eaten a bowl of porridge and drunk a cup of milk."
2. "I have eaten a bowl of porridge, and drunk a cup of milk"
Does the present perfect tense used in the first part of the sentence apply to the second/ subsequent parts?
If it does not apply, the how would a native express several actions while keeping the tense form constant? I think it would be quite strange to say, "I have eaten a bowl of porridge, have drunk a cup of milk, have taken a bath, have ......"
I apologise for being unable to elucidate this question more clearly, as I am not familiar with the grammar terminology involved.
I would like to ask if the tense used in the first part of a sentence is applicable to the subsequent parts.
Which of the below sentences is the same as writing "I have eaten a bowl of porridge and have drunk a cup of milk"?
1. "I have eaten a bowl of porridge and drunk a cup of milk."
2. "I have eaten a bowl of porridge, and drunk a cup of milk"
Does the present perfect tense used in the first part of the sentence apply to the second/ subsequent parts?
If it does not apply, the how would a native express several actions while keeping the tense form constant? I think it would be quite strange to say, "I have eaten a bowl of porridge, have drunk a cup of milk, have taken a bath, have ......"
I apologise for being unable to elucidate this question more clearly, as I am not familiar with the grammar terminology involved.
Top answer
Yes. Unless you use a modifier.
Get the Weekly English Kit 📬
New words, one handy idiom, and a 2-minute quiz — delivered to your inbox to keep your streak alive.
0
0
I am sorry; what do you mean by "yes"? Do you mean both sentences 1 & 2 are the same as writing "I have eaten a bowl of porridge, and have drunk a cup of milk"?
00
The comma doesn't change the sentence for me in this case, it just allows my to breave while reading it. You asked if the second clause in the sentence was governed by the first clause, to which I replied yes, unless you modify it.
00
IanKCHDoes the present perfect tense used in the first part of the sentence apply to the second/ subsequent parts?Yes. It applies. You don't have to repeat have.
CJ
00
Thanks for the answers!
I just need to clarify some lingering doubts. If the present perfect tense applies to the subsequent clauses, then shouldn't the verbs in the subsequent clauses all take the past participle form?
So why is it grammatically correct to say, "I have eaten a bowl of porridge and drank a cup of milk"?
I often see sentences like this, where the
I just need to clarify some lingering doubts. If the present perfect tense applies to the subsequent clauses, then shouldn't the verbs in the subsequent clauses all take the past participle form?
So why is it grammatically correct to say, "I have eaten a bowl of porridge and drank a cup of milk"?
I often see sentences like this, where the
00
You normally shouldn't mix the present perfect tense and simple past in one sentence but there are exceptions.
Ex
It's been a while since I last saw you.
or even
Have you ever been to France and tasted their excellent wines?
No, I've never been there but I had a glass of French wine an hour ago.
Ex
It's been a while since I last saw you.
or even
Have you ever been to France and tasted their excellent wines?
No, I've never been there but I had a glass of French wine an hour ago.
0