1: He is possessed of universal knowledge - a jack of all trades. 2: He possesses universal knowledge - a jack of all trades. 3: He is possessed by universal knowledge - a jack of no trades.
To me, the first and second stand for the same meaning, but the third is more like saying, he is possessed by a demon. 'universal knowledge' is, perhaps, a metonymy for somethng unspecified, and if this is actually the case, then 'the' is to be used in front of 'universal knowledge'. What do you say? Please let me know.
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Hi, 1: He is possessed of universal knowledge - a jack of all trades. 2: He possesses universal knowledge - a jack of all trades. 3: He is possessed by universal knowledge - a jack of no trades.
— Clive
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I too say some modifications are required. But the lack of context shouldn't lead us to the conclusion that the use is incorrect in general. In particular contexts it could make perfect sense. e.g. Faust was possessed by evil knowledge. Here, 'evil knowledge' is a trope used for the devil. A person who claims can see fairies, dead persons walking, have glimpses of gods is undoubtedly entitling hi