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Anonymous Posted 15 years ago
Grammar

English grammar

I'm reading a book called "Persuasion" by Jane Austen and there is a sentence in which I have a doubt: "Lady Russel had not been arrived...". Why is it used the passive voice with a verb such as "ARRIVE" that is intransitive. Please help me!!

  

Top answer

Could you include the complete sentence, and possibly some context? Thanks! - A.

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3 Answers
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Could you include the complete sentence, and possibly some context?

Thanks! - A.
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FYI

There was a little awkwardness at first in their discourse
on another subject. They must speak of the accident at Lyme.
Lady Russell had not been arrived five minutes the day before,
when a full account of the whole had burst on her; but still it must
be talked of, she must make enquiries, she must regret the imprudence,
lament the result, and Captain Wentworth's
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Anonymous I'm reading a book called "Persuasion" by Jane Austen and there is a sentence in which I have a doubt: "Lady Russel had not been arrived...". Why is it used the passive voice with a verb such as "ARRIVE" that is intransitive. Please help me!!
This turn of phrase is not used in modern English. Substitute "there" for "arrived" and you have the meaning
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