The passage comes from a book, The 48 Laws of Power.
In 1492 the Spanish finally expelled the Moorish invaders who centuries earlier had seized parts of the country. With the wartime burden on her treasury lifted, Isabella felt she could finally respond to the demands of her explorer friend, and she decided to pay for three ships, equipment, the salaries of the crews, and a modest stipend for Columbus.
I think he underlined part could be parsed as follows: Since the wartime burden on her treasury was lifted...
Am I right?
Then, it seems to be better that the 'was' be replace by 'had been'.
Now, here is my conclusion. Based on my sense of English grammar, both 'was' and 'had been' seem possible in English. But 'had been' might a bit more frequent that 'was'.
Can you check up my line of thought?
(If you don't think my idea is proper, could you give me the reason for that?)
Regards.
Top answer
Am I right? Yes, you are. Stenka25 Then, it seems to be better that the 'was' be replace by 'had been'.
— Mister Micawber
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